220-1101 Exam Questions

Total 849 Questions

Last Updated Exam : 9-Jun-2025

Topic 5: Exam Pool E (NEW)

Users have been reporting slow network traffic in a branch office, and the technician needs CompTIA 220-1101 : Practice Test to determine if packet loss is occurring on the network. Which of the following would the technician most likely use to passively assess the network traffic issue?


A. Cable tester


B. Network tap


C. Wi-Fi analyzer


D. Toner probe





B.
  Network tap

Explanation: A network tap (Test Access Point) is a device used for monitoring network traffic. It allows the technician to passively observe the traffic between two network nodes in real-time without introducing latency or affecting the network's performance. By using a network tap, the technician can analyze the data packets flowing through the network to identify if packet loss is occurring, which could be contributing to the slow network traffic in the branch office.
References: Network taps are widely recognized in the field of network troubleshooting and monitoring for their ability to provide a mirror of the traffic that can be analyzed for issues such as packet loss.

A SOHO user's network printer has been without power for the last few days. After turning the printer back on, the user cannot connect to it. Which of the following is the most probable cause?


A. The printer has a static IP address.


B. The printer has a dynamic IP address.


C. The printer has an APIPA.


D. The printer has a public IP address.





B.
  The printer has a dynamic IP address.

Which of the following devices is designed to monitor and filter incoming and outgoing network traffic?


A. Switch


B. Access point


C. Firewall


D. Hub





C.
  Firewall

Explanation: A firewall monitors and filters incoming and outgoing network traffic based on security rules, protecting the network from unauthorized access and threats.
✑ Why Not A (Switch): A switch connects devices within a network but does not monitor or filter traffic.
✑ Why Not B (Access point): An access point provides Wi-Fi connectivity but does not filter traffic.
✑ Why Not D (Hub): A hub simply broadcasts data to all connected devices without filtering traffic.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 1 (220-1101), Section 2.2, network security concepts.

A technician is configuring the router for a small business network. Which of the following settings should the technician configure first?


A. DHCP


B. UPnP


C. MAC filtering


D. VPN





A.
  DHCP

Users working with large files back up the files to external hard drives. One user's files take longer to back up than other users' files. The user has tried backing up the files to other users' drives with the same results. Which of the following steps should the technician take first to correct this issue?


A. Replace the hard drive's USB cable.


B. Defragment the user's external hard drive.


C. Update the storage drivers on the user's system.


D. Instruct the user to compress the files.





B.
  Defragment the user's external hard drive.

Explanation: If a hard drive is heavily fragmented, file read/write operations can take significantly longer, causing slow backup speeds. Defragmenting the drive organizes the data for more efficient access.
✑ Why Not A (Replace the hard drive's USB cable): A faulty cable would typically cause disconnections or errors, not just slower speeds.
✑ Why Not C (Update the storage drivers): This might help if the issue is with system drivers, but the described symptoms point to a fragmentation issue.
✑ Why Not D (Compress the files): Compression reduces file size but does not address the root cause of the slow backups.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 3.1, storage troubleshooting.

CompTIA 220-1101 : Practice Test A company requires all users to have biometric identification enabled. Which of the following features in Windows provides this functionality?


A. Bitlocker


B. Hello


C. Defender


D. Trusted Platform Module





B.
  Hello

Explanation: Windows Hello provides biometric authentication options, including facial recognition, fingerprint scanning, and iris scanning, aligning with the company’s requirement for biometric identification.
✑ Why Not A (BitLocker): BitLocker is for encrypting data, not biometric authentication.
✑ Why Not C (Defender): Windows Defender provides antivirus and security features, not biometric functionality.
✑ Why Not D (Trusted Platform Module): TPM is a hardware feature for secure cryptographic operations, not biometric authentication.
CompTIA A+ Exam Reference: Core 2 (220-1102), Section 2.5, Windows security features.

A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?


A. Digitizer issues


B. Overheating


C. Broken screen


D. Malware





A.
  Digitizer issues

Explanation: Dropping a smartphone can damage the digitizer, which is the component responsible for sensing touch input. This can cause issues with tapping and swiping on the screen, as well as other touchscreen-related issues. References: CompTIA A+ Certification Exam Core 1 Exam Objectives - 3.3 Given a scenario, troubleshoot mobile device issues

A user purchased a retail router and would like to set up a private network. Which of the following network address ranges should the user configure?


A. 170.50.0.0 to 170.50.255.255


B. 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255


C. 224.0.0.0 to 224.255.255.255


D. 239.0.0.0 to 239.255.255.255





B.
  172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255

Explanation: For setting up a private network, the IP address range should be one that is reserved for private use. The range 172.16.0.0 to 172.31.255.255 falls within the set of IP addresses designated for private networks according to RFC 1918. This range is not routable on the public internet, making it ideal for a private network setup on a retail router.

While implementing a non-carrier-grade wireless backhaul, a technician notices the current channel selection is externally polluted with various RF signals. Upon performing a spectral analysis, the technician discovers a channel containing almost no RF pollution. Unfortunately, the technician is unable to select that channel. Which of the following is the MOST likely reason for this issue?


A. The channel is reserved for licensed band use.


B. The channel selection is defective, contact the manufacturer


C. The channel must be unblocked by the vendor


D. The device requires a firmware update to unlock the channel





A.
  The channel is reserved for licensed band use.

Explanation: The 2. band is subdivided into up to 14 channels, spaced at 5 MHz intervals from 2412 MHz up to 2484 MHz. Wi-Fi requires bandwidth of approximately 20 MHz, not 5 MHz. Consequently, a site designer needs to choose the channels that do not overlap. On a WLAN where only the first 11 channels are available, channels 1, 6, and 11 can be selected as non-overlapping. Note: In the Americas, regulations permit the use of channels 1-11 only, while in Europe, channels 1-13 are permitted. In Japan, all 14 channels are permitted.

Which of the following cloud-computing concepts describes an environment in which various internal VM servers for a specific organization are stored within both a physical server and a cloud environment?


A. Private


B. Hybrid


C. Community


D. Public





B.
  Hybrid

Explanation: A hybrid cloud is a cloud computing environment that combines on-premises, private cloud, and public cloud resources. This configuration allows organizations to deploy workloads and data in a way that optimizes performance, security, and cost management.
✑ Key Characteristics of a Hybrid Cloud:
Comparison to Other Options:
✑ A. Private Cloud: A private cloud is a dedicated environment for a single organization, either on-premises or hosted by a service provider. It does not include any public cloud integration, as seen in a hybrid model.
✑ C. Community Cloud: This model is shared among several organizations with similar requirements, typically for collaborative projects, and does not blend public and private infrastructure.
✑ D. Public Cloud: Resources are entirely hosted on a cloud provider’s infrastructure and are shared among multiple customers, lacking the private, dedicated resources of a hybrid setup. CompTIA A+ Exam Objectives References:
✑ 220-1101 (Core 1), Section 4.1 outlines various cloud-computing models, including private, public, hybrid, and community clouds.
✑ Hybrid cloud is explicitly described as an environment that mixes private and public resources to deliver flexible and scalable solutions.


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