A growing company would like to enhance the ability of its security operations center to detect threats but reduce the amount of manual work required tor the security analysts.
Which of the following would best enable the reduction in manual work?
A. SOAR
B. SIEM
C. MDM
D. DLP
Explanation: Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response (SOAR) systems help organizations automate repetitive security tasks, reduce manual intervention, and improve the efficiency of security operations. By integrating with various security tools, SOAR can automatically respond to incidents, helping to enhance threat detection while reducing the manual workload on security analysts.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 study materials, particularly in the domain of security operations and automation technologies.
A software developer released a new application and is distributing application files via the developer's website. Which of the following should the developer post on the website to allow users to verify the integrity of the downloaded files?
A. Hashes
B. Certificates
C. Algorithms
D. Salting
Explanation: To verify the integrity of downloaded files, a software developer should post hashes on the website. A hash is a fixed-length string or number generated from input data, such as a file. When users download the application files, they can generate their own hash from the downloaded files and compare it with the hash provided by the developer. If the hashes match, it confirms that the files have not been altered or corrupted during the download process.
Hashes: Ensure data integrity by allowing users to verify that the downloaded files are identical to the original ones. Common hashing algorithms include MD5, SHA- 1, and SHA-256.
Certificates and Algorithms: Are more related to ensuring authenticity and securing communications rather than verifying file integrity.
Salting: Is a technique used in hashing passwords to add an additional layer of security, not for verifying file integrity.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 1.2 - Summarize fundamental security concepts (Hashing).
A company is utilizing an offshore team to help support the finance department. The company wants to keep the data secure by keeping it on a company device but does not want to provide equipment to the offshore team. Which of the following should the company implement to meet this requirement?
A. VDI
B. MDM
C. VPN
D. VPC
Explanation:
Virtual Desktop Infrastructure (VDI) allows a company to host desktop environments on a centralized server. Offshore teams can access these virtual desktops remotely, ensuring that sensitive data stays within the company’s infrastructure without the need to provide physical devices to the team. This solution is ideal for maintaining data security while enabling remote work, as all data processing occurs on the company's secure servers.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: VDI is discussed as a method for securely managing remote access to company resources without compromising data security.
A Chief Information Security Officer wants to monitor the company's servers for SQLi attacks and allow for comprehensive investigations if an attack occurs. The company uses SSL decryption to allow traffic monitoring. Which of the following strategies would best accomplish this goal?
A. Logging all NetFlow traffic into a SIEM
B. Deploying network traffic sensors on the same subnet as the servers
C. Logging endpoint and OS-specific security logs
D. Enabling full packet capture for traffic entering and exiting the servers
Explanation: Full packet capture is a technique that records all network traffic passing through a device, such as a router or firewall. It allows for detailed analysis and investigation of network events, such as SQLi attacks, by providing the complete content and context of the packets. Full packet capture can help identify the source, destination, payload, and timing of an SQLi attack, as well as the impact on the server and database. Logging NetFlow traffic, network traffic sensors, and endpoint and OS-specific security logs can provide some information about network activity, but they do not capture the full content of the packets, which may limit the scope and depth of the investigation.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 372-373
A security administrator is configuring fileshares. The administrator removed the default permissions and added permissions for only users who will need to access the fileshares as part of their job duties. Which of the following best describes why the administrator performed these actions?
A. Encryption standard compliance
B. Data replication requirements
C. Least privilege
D. Access control monitoring
Explanation: The security administrator's actions of removing default permissions and adding permissions only for users who need access as part of their job duties best describe the principle of least privilege. This principle ensures that users are granted the minimum necessary access to perform their job functions, reducing the risk of unauthorized access or data breaches.
Least privilege: Limits access rights for users to the bare minimum necessary for their job duties, enhancing security by reducing potential attack surfaces. Encryption standard compliance: Involves meeting encryption requirements, but it does not explain the removal and assignment of specific permissions.
Data replication requirements: Focus on duplicating data across different systems for redundancy and availability, not related to user permissions.
Access control monitoring: Involves tracking and reviewing access to resources, but the scenario is about setting permissions, not monitoring them.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 4.5 - Modify enterprise capabilities to enhance security (Least privilege).
In which of the following scenarios is tokenization the best privacy technique 10 use?
A. Providing pseudo-anonymization tor social media user accounts
B. Serving as a second factor for authentication requests
C. Enabling established customers to safely store credit card Information
D. Masking personal information inside databases by segmenting data
Explanation: Tokenization is a process that replaces sensitive data, such as credit card information, with a non-sensitive equivalent (token) that can be used in place of the actual data. This technique is particularly useful in securely storing payment information because the token can be safely stored and transmitted without exposing the original credit card number.
References = CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Course Content: Domain 03 Security Architecture. CompTIA Security+ SY0-601 Study Guide: Chapter on Cryptography and Data Protection.
Which of the following can be used to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers?
A. Honey pot
B. Video surveillance
C. Zero Trust
D. Geofencing
Explanation: A honey pot is a system or a network that is designed to mimic a real production server and attract potential attackers. A honey pot can be used to identify the attacker’s methods, techniques, and objectives without affecting the actual production servers. A honey pot can also divert the attacker’s attention from the real targets and waste their time and resources12.
The other options are not effective ways to identify potential attacker activities without affecting production servers:
Video surveillance: This is a physical security technique that uses cameras and monitors to record and observe the activities in a certain area. Video surveillance can help to deter, detect, and investigate physical intrusions, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers3.
Zero Trust: This is a security strategy that assumes that no user, device, or network is trustworthy by default and requires strict verification and validation for every request and transaction. Zero Trust can help to improve the security posture and reduce the attack surface of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers4.
Geofencing: This is a security technique that uses geographic location as a criterion to restrict or allow access to data or resources. Geofencing can help to protect the data sovereignty and compliance of an organization, but it does not directly identify the attacker’s activities on the network or the servers5.
References = 1: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 542: Honeypots and Deception – SY0-601 CompTIA Security+ : 2.1, video by Professor Messer3: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 974: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 985: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Certification Study Guide, page 99.
A company is working with a vendor to perform a penetration test Which of the following includes an estimate about the number of hours required to complete the engagement?
A. SOW
B. BPA
C. SLA
D. NDA
Explanation: A statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, timeline, and costs of a project or service. It typically includes an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement, as well as the roles and responsibilities of the parties involved. A SOW is often used for penetration testing projects to ensure that both the client and the vendor have a clear and mutual understanding of what is expected and how the work will be performed. A business partnership agreement (BPA), a service level agreement (SLA), and a non-disclosure agreement (NDA) are different types of contracts that may be related to a penetration testing project, but they do not include an estimate of the number of hours required to complete the engagement.
References: CompTIA Security+ Study Guide: Exam SY0-701, 9th Edition, page 492; What to Look For in a Penetration Testing Statement of Work?
The marketing department set up its own project management software without telling the appropriate departments. Which of the following describes this scenario?
A. Shadow IT
B. Insider threat
C. Data exfiltration
D. Service disruption
Explanation: The marketing department setting up its own project management software without informing the appropriate departments is an example of Shadow IT. Shadow IT refers to the use of IT systems, devices, software, applications, and services without explicit approval from the IT department.
Shadow IT: Involves the use of unauthorized systems and applications within an organization, which can lead to security risks and compliance issues.
Insider threat: Refers to threats from individuals within the organization who may intentionally cause harm or misuse their access, but this scenario is more about unauthorized use rather than malicious intent.
Data exfiltration: Involves unauthorized transfer of data out of the organization, which is not the main issue in this scenario.
Service disruption: Refers to interruptions in service availability, which is not directly related to the marketing department's actions.
Reference: CompTIA Security+ SY0-701 Exam Objectives, Domain 2.1 - Compare and contrast common threat actors and motivations (Shadow IT).
A company is concerned about the theft of client data from decommissioned laptops. Which of the following is the most cost-effective method to decrease this risk?
A. Wiping
B. Recycling
C. Shredding
D. Deletion
Explanation: Wiping involves securely erasing data by overwriting the hard drive, ensuring the information is unrecoverable. It is cost-effective compared to physical destruction methods like shredding.
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